CAF-4 · Chapter 4 · Question 9 of 15
If a party's consent was caused by a 'mistake of law' in force in Pakistan, what is the status of the contract?
Test yourself: pick an answer
Reveal answer & explanation
Correct answer: C) The contract is NOT voidable.
Explanation
Section 21 states that a contract is not voidable because it was caused by a mistake as to any law in force in Pakistan, as ignorance of the law (ignorantia juris non excusat) is no excuse.
More Free consent MCQs
- Q11Which of the following acts constitutes 'coercion'?
- Q12In a contract of insurance (Uberrimae Fidei), what is the duty of the parties regarding the disclosure of facts?
- Q13Azam sells a horse to Babar by claiming 'the horse is sound', even though Azam knows the horse is ill. This is an example of:
- Q14A contract is void on the grounds of mistake ONLY IF the mistake is about:
- Q15If a party is in a position to dominate the will of another and uses that position to obtain an unfair advantage, the contract is voidable…
