ICAEW AF · Chapter 10 · Question 7 of 9
Why does a business make an allowance for receivables, rather than waiting until specific debts are known to be irrecoverable?
Test yourself: pick an answer
Reveal answer & explanation
Correct answer: A) So that receivables are not overstated and the expected credit loss is recognised in the period in which the related revenue arises
Explanation
An allowance reflects the expectation that some receivables will not be collected, so that the asset is shown at the amount expected to be recovered. Under IFRS 9, losses are recognised on an expected credit loss basis, which matches the cost of bad debts to the period in which the sales were made. The allowance is a book entry only: it does not set aside cash, and customers remain legally liable.
More Irrecoverable debts and allowances for receivables MCQs
- Q9What is the effect of writing off an irrecoverable debt on a business's financial statements?
- Q1A business decides that a debt of £720 owed by a customer who has disappeared will never be recovered. What is the double entry to write…
- Q2A customer whose debt of £540 was written off as irrecoverable in a previous year unexpectedly pays the £540 in full. What double entry…
- Q3At the year end, a business's trade receivables total £86,400 before a debt of £2,400 is written off. The allowance for receivables is to…
- Q4At the year end, a business has trade receivables of £54,700 and an allowance for receivables of £1,650. How are these presented in the…
