ICAEW ARF · Chapter 3 · Question 10 of 13
A client's credit sales for the year were £3,650,000 and its trade receivables at the year end were £450,000. Last year receivables collection was 30 days. Assuming a 365-day year, what is this year's collection period and what risk does it suggest?
Test yourself: pick an answer
Reveal answer & explanation
Correct answer: A) 45 days; trade receivables may be overstated because of irrecoverable debts
Explanation
Receivables days = £450,000 / £3,650,000 x 365 = 45 days. The increase from 30 to 45 days suggests customers are paying more slowly, so some balances may not be recoverable and receivables could be overstated if no adequate allowance is made. A longer collection period does not suggest understatement.
More Planning, materiality and risk assessment MCQs
- Q12A client's revenue has risen by 10% while its cost of sales is unchanged, so the gross margin has risen from 30% to approximately 36.4%…
- Q13Which of the following would be included in the detailed audit plan rather than the overall audit strategy?
- Q1Which of the following is NOT an objective of planning an audit?
- Q2Audit risk is a function of inherent risk, control risk and detection risk. Which of these can the auditor directly influence?
- Q3An auditor has assessed both inherent risk and control risk for trade receivables as high. What is the appropriate response?
